Answers.Test 4.

Listening comprehension.

1. (C) The question asks, "What does the woman mean?" The correct answer
is (C) - She couldn't watch anything on television, because her television is
out for repairs. The man says, "There was a great television show on last
night. It was a documentary about the history of the space program. Did you
see it?" The woman replies, "My television is at the repair shop."
2. (C) The question asks, "What year was the woman born?" The correct
answer is (C) - 1970. When the man asks how old the woman's sister was, the
woman responds, "My sister is two years older than I am. She was born in
1968." The woman was born two years after her sister was, which would make
the year of her birth 1970.
3. (C) The question asks, "What ride will they probably go on next?" The
correct answer is (C) - The ferris wheel. The man says, "Well, the line for the
bumper cars is very long, but the line for the ferris wheel looks relatively
short."
4. (D) The question asks, "Where is this conversation most likely taking
place.? The correct response is (D) - A wedding. The woman says, "The gown
she is wearing was her mother's," and the man says, He makes a handsome
groom."
5. (B) The question asks, "How many days does the man have to get his
project done?" The correct answer is (B) - Seven. The man says, "I have to get
this project done by the twenty-first of the month. What day is it today?" The
woman replies, "Today is the fourteenth."
6. (C) The question asks, "What does the man mean?" The correct answer is
(C) - Sam probably forgot the meeting because he has been so busy. The man
says, "He has had a busy schedule."
7. (A) The question asks, "Where is this conversation most likely taking
place?" The correct answer is (A) - A bakery. The woman says, "Were these
muffins made fresh this morning?" The man answers, "Of course, ma'am, we
bake them everyday."
8. (C) The question asks, "Why is the man tired?" The correct answer is (C) -
He went to sleep late the night before. The woman says to the man, "You
should not have stayed up so late last night."
9. (D) The question asks, "Why is the man aggravated?" The correct answer
is (D) - He is unable to find enough sources that he needs to complete his
paper. The man says, "I have been in this library for hours, but I cannot find
enough sources of information for my term paper."
10. (A) The question asks, "What does the woman mean?" The correct answer
is (A) - She does not know where the man's coat is. The woman asks, "How
am I supposed to know where your things are?"
11. (B) The question asks, "Does Bill have a job in the hospital?" The
correct answer is (B) - No, because the hospital does not have any positions
available at the moment. The woman says, "...they don't have any openings
right now." "Openings" means available positions.
12. (A) The question asks, "How does the man feel about his new project?"
The correct answer is (A) - It is fruitful. In the conversation the man says, "...I
think it is well worth the time and effort." It means that the time and energy
spent on it are not wasted.
13. (C) The question asks, "What was the woman doing?" The correct
answer is (C) - Giving her address. The woman says, "Send it to me. Ms.
Gloria Gessner, 147 Washington Avenue, Burlington, New York, Zip 11340."
It is while giving an address that you give the street address, the town, the
state, and the zip code one after the other.
14. (A) The question ass, "What was the reason for Richard's depression?"
The correct answer is (A) - He lost money in his insurance business. The man
says, "I heard he suffered some heavy losses in his insurance business."
15. (B) The question asks, "Where did this conversation most probably take
place?" The correct answer is (B) - At an auto garage. The woman says, "...Can
you please check my brake fluid? I am afraid of getting into an accident." The
man's response is, "Sure. Can you open the hood please?" It is obvious that the
woman wants to get the brakes of her car checked which is most likely to be
done at an auto garage.
16. (D) The question asks, "What does the man mean?" The correct answer is
(D)-He doesn't not want to have a heavy dinner. When the woman asks, "What
would you like to have for dinner?", the man answers, "Anything light would
be good..." what he means by "light" is "not heavy." He is not referring to the
light in the dining area.
17. (C) The question asks, "What was the woman's opinion?" The correct
answer is (C) - Clare could have scored better. The woman says, "...score is
too poor for her." It means the score could be good for others but Clare is
capable of scoring better.
18. (B) The question asks, "Why can't they start the meeting?" The correct
answer is (B) - Because David has not come in yet. When the man suggests to
check if Susan has arrived in order to start the meeting, the woman says,
"Susan came in ten minutes ago. We still have to wait for David, though." So,
it is David who has not arrived yet.
19. (D) The question asks, "What does the woman mean?" The correct
answer is (D) - Al is Alexander's familiar name. The woman said, "His name is
Alexander Robbins. Al is his nickname..." "Nickname" means familiar name or
pet name.
20. (B) The question asks, "How many people came for lunch?" The correct
answer is (B) - Twenty. The man says, "I thought you had ordered lunch for 16
people." The woman responded, "Yes. But we have four more unexpected
guests." Sixteen people were expected and four more people came which
means there were 20 people.
21. (A) The question asks, "What does the woman mean?" The correct answer
is (A) - Her brother drove at a tremendous speed. The woman says, "The speed
at which my brother drove was unbelievable." "Unbelievable speed" means
very high speed.
22. (D) The question asks, "What is the woman's opinion about her new
neighbors?" The correct answer is (D) - They are very good people. The
woman says, "They are wonderful people... I was tired of the quarrelsome
couple that lived here before." "Wonderful" is used as a compliment. The
quarrelsome couple is the one that lived there before.
23. (D) The question asks, "What does the woman mean?" The correct
answer is (D) - The man has the ability to appreciate really good music. The
woman says, "You have great taste in music." "Taste" here means artistic
appreciation.
24. (D) The question asks, "On what day did this conversation take place?"
The correct answer is (D) - Friday. The woman asls, "Are they closed
already?..." The man answers, "Yes. They close at five on Fridays. And they
are closed even on weekends." This means the conversation took place on a
Friday after five o'clock.
25. (D) The question asks, "What does the woman mean?" The correct
answer is (D) - If the man has paid his bill, he should not pay attention to the
notice. The woman says, "If you have paid it, just disregard the notice."
"Disregard" here means not to pay attention to.
26. (D) The question asks "What did the man buy?" The correct response is
(D) - A suit. This is taken directly from the conversation. The man says, "I just
bought this new suit." Choice (B) "A blazer" is what the woman says she is
looking to buy. Choices (A) and (C) are not mentioned in the conversation.
27. (B) The question asks, "What did the woman think of the man's new
clothing?" The correct response is (B) - She liked it on him. The woman says,
"It looks very good on you." Choices (A), (C), and (D) are not part of the
conversation that was heard.
28. (B) The question asks "What was the discount the man received on his
clothing?" The correct response is (B) - 50%. The man says, "I have a friend
who owns a clothing store and he gives me all my clothes at half off regular
price." Half off is a 50 percent discount. Choice (A) "25%" is one-fourth off.
Choice (C) "75%" is three-fourths off. Choice (D) "90%" is nine-tenths off (a
phrase that is almost never used).
29. (A) The questions asks, "How come the woman could not wear most
clothes?" The correct response is (A) - They did not fit properly. She says.
"Most off the rack clothing does not fit me well, does he do any tailoring." The
phrase "off the rack" refers to all clothes that are not tailor made for the
individual. The clothes that are purchased in most department stores or brand-
name clothing stores are "off the rack."
30. (A) The question asks "When were they going to the store?" The correct
response is (A) - About 5 p.m. This question requires you to make an
inference based upon the conversation. First, the man is in a suit, so you can
infer that he works in an office environment. The man also suggests that he
and the woman go to the store after work. The office hours for most businesses
is 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.. From the answer choices given, "about 5 p.m" is the best
response.
31. (B) The question asks, "What were these people talking about?" The
correct answer is (B) - The man's interview. During the conversation the man
says, "I hope my interviewers feel that way." The focus of the whole
conversation was the interview for which the man has just appeared.
32. (D) The question asks, "Why is the man not confident about getting the
job?" The correct answer is (D) - He does not have enough work experience.
The man says, "My qualifications are O.K. But I don't have the experience of
working on a project like this. That's why I am not so sure about getting this
job."
33. (A) The question asks, "What is an important quality for good work
according to the woman?" The correct answer is (A) - The ability to apply
knowledge to work. The woman says, "I think what matters is that you have
the ability to ply your knowledge to your work."
34. (C) The question asks, "How does the man feel about his qualifications?"
The correct answer is (C) - They are fairly good. In the conversation the man
says, "My qualifications are O.K...."
35. (B) The question asks, "What is the man's opinion about his
interviewers?" The correct answer is (B) - They are experts in this field. In the
conversation the man says, "...All of them are authorities in this field."
36. (B) The question asks, "Who seems to be in a festive mood in the spring
according to the woman?" The correct answer is (B) - The whole earth. While
explaining why she likes the spring, the woman says, "...I love flowers and
colors. You can see so many of them in the spring; as if the whole earth is in a
festive mood."
37. (C) The question asks, "Why is the spring the favorite season of the
woman?" The correct answer is (C) - Because it is colorful and pleasant. When
the man asks, "...which is your favorite season?", the woman answers, "...the
spring." When the man asks "Why?", the woman answers, "Because I love
flowers and colors. You can see somany of them in the spring... Also, it's the
most pleasant weather."
38. (D) The question asks, "What is the reason why the man cannot
appreciate the spring?" The correct answer is (D) - He gets sick in the spring.
When the woman asks him why the spring is not his favorite season, he
answers, "Because 1 get terrible allergies in the spring."
39. (A) The question asks, "What type of country is Norway?" The correct
answer is (A) - Cold. In the conversation the man says, "If lamina cold country
like Norway, it would be the summer...."
40. (B) The question asks, "How does the woman find the man's
explanation?" The correct answer is (B) - Funny. When the man explains why
his favorite season would differ from country to country, the woman exclaims,
"Aren't you funny?"
41. (D) The question asks, "On what civilization did medieval Islamic
culture leave a lasting impression?" The correct response is (D) - Western.
This is given in the first line of the paragraph. "Medieval Islamic culture left a
lasting imprint on the development of Western civilization."
42. (B) The question asks, "Which stars have their names from Arabic
words?" The correct response is (B) - Alderan and Betelgeuse. This sentence
requires you to distinguish from a list of words and to interpret pauses in
speaking to separate different groups of words. The sentence reads, "The terms
zenith, nadir, zero, and the names of stars like Alderan and Betelgeuse, along
with amalgam, alembic, alchemy, alkali, soda, and syrup all have their origin
in Arabic." The pauses created by the commas indicate that only Alderan and
Betelgeuse are stars.
43. (A) The question asks, "Why was western Europe languishing?" The
correct response is (A) - Germanic invasions. This information was given in
the sentence, "While western Europe was languishing in the wake of the
Germanic invasions, the Islamic people were vibrant and creative." Choices (B)
and (C) were other culture's mentioned in the text, but are not involved in
invasions. Choice (D) does not appear in the text.
44. (B) The question asks, "Whose philosophy did the Islamic people keep
alive?" The correct response is (B) - Greeks'. This answer to this question
comes from the sentence, "They kept alive the philosophy of the Greeks and
made numerous advances in medicine and science." Choices (A) and (C) are
other culture's mentioned in the reading, but are not mentioned in conjunction
with philosophy. Choice (D) is not in the passage.
45. (D) The question asks, "In what areas did the people of Islamic culture
make advances?" The correct response is (D) - Medicine and science. The
answer to this question appears in the same sentence as the answer to the
previous question. The other choices given may have been correct, but they do
not appear in the reading.
46. (D) The question asks, "Why is the Antarctic the world's coldest
continent?" The correct answer is (D) - Because it has an average annual
temperature of minus seventy degrees Fahrenheit. The first statement in the
talk is, "The world's coldest continent, the Antarctic, has a mean annual
temperature of -70 F."
47. (B) The question asks, "What would happen if ice on the Antarctic ever
melted?" The correct answer is (B) - The sea level would rise about 60 feet. In
the talk you heard, "If the ice lying there ever melted, it would raise the sea
level by approximately 60 feet."
48. (A) The question asks, "At what speeds do the most fierce winds in the
Antarctic blow?" The correct answer is (A) - Two hundred miles per hour. In
the talk you heard, "The most fierce gusts of the wind there are nearly 200
miles per hour."
49. (C) The question asks, "Why would a biologist find the Antarctic an
interesting continent?" The correct answer is (C) - Because it has the world's
largest population of wildlife. In the talk you heard, "...the Antarctic has
plenty to offer for a biologist's study."
50. (D) The question asks, "Which animal is not an inhabitant of the
Antarctic?" The correct answer is (D) - Elephant. In the last sentence of the
talk, the animals living in the Antarctic are mentioned and the elephant is not
one of them.

Structure and written expression.

1.` (B)` (B) is correct because the infinitive performs the function of the adjective to qualify`
president.` (A) lacks the relative pronoun` who` to form an adjectival clause that can qualify`
president.` (C) is incorrect because the present tense does not agree with the past tense was in
the main clause. In addition, it lacks` who` to form an adjectival clause. (D) lacks the relative
pronoun` who.
2. (B)` (B) is correct because the simple present tense agrees with the simple present tense`
get` in the main clause, and scientific facts and results are normally stated in simple present
tense. (A) is incorrect because the past tense does not agree with the present tense `get` in the
main clause. (C) is incorrect because the present continuous tense does not agree with` get` in
the main clause;` get` must be in the future tense. (D) The future tense does not agree with` get`
and so it is wrong.
3.` (A)` (A) is correct because `by` denotes agent (person/thing) responsible for event in this
passive voice sentence. (B)` Through` is used to denote the means of doing something. (C)`
with` is used to denote the means of doing something. (D) `to` is a preposition of direction or
introduces a purpose or intent.
4. (B) (B) is correct because the relative pronoun `which` introduces an (adjectival)
subordinate clause. (A)` that` is a relative pronoun but has a restrictive or classifying meaning
(only a mineral that is...), so it is wrong. (C) The personal pronoun it cannot refer to a preceding
noun, so it is wrong. (D) The relative pronoun `who` can refer only to persons, so it is wrong.
5.` (A)` (A) is correct. Prosthetics is a non-count noun and singular in agreement with the
verb` is.` (B) is an adjective and therefore not suitable. (C) is an adjective and therefore not
suitable. (D) The article` the` is not required.
6. (C) (C) is correct because `most` is a numeral adjective, denoting an unspecified large
number. (A) `A large amount` refers to a quantity of non-count nouns. Asians is a count noun.
(B) `Much `refers to a quantity of non-count nouns. (D) You must have the indefinite article a
before `number of Asians.
7. (D)` (D) is the right answer; it is in the superlative degree. (A) The superlative degree of`
large is largest` not` most large.` (B) indicates comparative degree. There is no indication of a
comparison in the sentence. (C) The superlative degree must be preceded by the definitive
article` the.
8.` (C) (C) is the right answer; `on` is used to locate objects on a two-dimensional space or
surface. A planet is perceived as a surface. (A)` in` is used to locate objects in a three-
dimensional space or a location perceived as three-dimensional. (B) `at` is used to denote a
specific point on a linear dimension. (D) `to` is a preposition of direction and therefore
unsuitable here.
9.` (C)` (C) is the right answer; as` well as` combines the two items` Declaration` and
`Constitution` in an inclusive way to form a single subject. This is in agreement with the
singular verb was. (A)` and` joins two words/phrases of equal rank and so there will be two
subjects; this does not agree with the singular verb was. (B)` also` cannot join the two items`
Declaration` and` Constitution;` it can add a statement to another. (D)` so too` cannot join two
nouns; it can only add a statement to another.
10.` (D)` (D) is the right answer; it is a phrase denoting time in the right place. (A) The
preposition `in` is missing before` 1930.` (B) This order of words is not normal in prose; it may
occur in poetry. (C) This order of words is not normal in prose; it may occur in poetry.
11. (B) (B) is the right answer; the singular verb is in agreement with the subject. `Comprising`
is an inclusive term and so` the rodent` is a single subject. (A) is a plural verb not in agreement
with the singular subject` rodent.` (C)` mammal` must be preceded by the indefinite article a.
(D) The tense and article are incorrect.
12. (D) (D) is the right answer;` dumping` is a gerundial (50% noun + 50% verb) noun, and the
subject of the sentence. Sewage is the object of` dumping.` (A) having `dumped` is a perfect
participle which should precede another action in the past. (B)` being dumped` is a participle
qualifying the following noun making it a subject. Sewage is not the subject of the sentence.
(C)` dumped` is a past participle qualifying sewage and making it a subject, which it is not.
13.` (B)` (B) is the right answer; the past participle` subjected` agrees with the past participle`
made` in the first clause. The verbs in a series must agree. (A) The participle `being` following
the conjunction` and` must agree with the verb` made` in the first clause but does not. (C)`
Subject` is an adjective, not agreeing with` made.` (D) The present
continuous participle does not agree with` made.
14.`` (D)` (D) is the right answer; no redundancy. (A) Color is redundant; the idea of `color` is
inherent in` pigment.` (B)` Colorful` is redundant. (C) The definitive article` the` is incorrect
here.
15. (C) (C) is the right answer; it is an attributive adjective qualifying `source.` (A) `well` is an
adverb modifying a verb. As an adjective it qualifies health in the predicative. (B) is an adjective
of comparative degree unsuitable here. (D) is an intensifier adverb which modifies an adjective
or another adverb.
16. (A) (A) is the right answer. The sentence must read "Walt Disney used to make...." A
habitual action in the past is denoted by `used to.` (B) is a numeral adjective qualifying `visits.`
(C) is an infinitive of purpose functioning as an adjective to qualify `visits.` (D) The conjunction
joins the two nouns `needs` and `interests`.
17.` (A)` (A) is the right answer. `If` at the beginning of the sentence signifies a conditional
sentence. The right form of the conditional verb is` had not taken` which will agree with the
result` might have graduated.` A condition or hypothesis in past time must be denoted by the
past perfect tense. (B) relates a person/thing to a condition or event. (C) The definitive article is
in agreement with the specific event` Olympic Games.` (D)` From `when it follows the verb`
graduate` denotes completion of a course of studies.
18.` (A)` (A) is the right answer. The infinitive should be used without `to` when it
complements the causative verb` make.` (B) The definitive article is in agreement with `need,`
specified later in the context. (C) The preposition` for` is correctly used in modifying `need.`
(D) The compound noun tells us what the people needed.
19. (B) (B) is the right answer. The first word in the sentence, `if,` signifies a conditional
sentence. A condition in the present tense, `continue` must have its result expressed in the future
tense. The answer should be `will`. (A) The infinitive is the object of the verb `continue.` (C)
Denotes the existence of resources. (D)` For` expresses intent to give some- thing to someone.
20.` (D)` (D) is the right answer. Me must be replaced by the reflexive pronoun` myself.`
When the agent of the action is also the object of the action, the object must be expressed by a
reflexive pronoun. (A) Present perfect is in agreement with the present perfect` have been.` (B)
is the gerundial object of` learnt.` (C) is the gerundial complement of` have been afraid.`
21.` (C)` (C) is the right answer.` Approving` must be replaced by the past participle
`approved` to denote passive voice. (A)` Imperative` means important and is therefore
appropriate. (B) The past participle form functions as an adjective qualifying `food.` (D) is an
adjective qualifying the noun` standards.`
22.` (A)` (A) is the right answer.` Much` is an adjective of quantity used to refer to non-
count nouns. It must be replaced by` many` a numeral adjective, to qualify the count-noun
`scientists.` (B) expresses a choice between` time` and` skills.` (C) is an adjective qualifying
`skills.` (D) To` become` is an infinitive of purpose complementing` required.`
23.` (A)` (A) is the right answer.` To` in` has to been` is an ungrammatical addition. There is
no such verbal form.` Has been` expresses duration of time from prehistoric times to the
present. (B)` Since` is an appropriate preposition for signifying the starting point, in the past, of
a duration of time. (C)` Only` is a restrictive adverb limiting` coal mining` to a certain starting
point in time. (D) is a gerundial compound noun functioning as subject of the verb` has been.
24.` (D)` (D) is the right answer. The tag question should be` shouldn't they?; shouldn't `agrees
with` should` in the main clause;` they` agrees with the two nouns` eggs` and` cheese. `(A) The
superlative is not preceded by the definite article` the;` in the absence of the article,` results` is
the appropriate noun number, not` result.` (B)` Should` expresses an obligation to be performed
for the desired results. (C) is a preposition relating` cooked to
heat.`
25.` (A)` (A) is the right answer. The personal pronoun `it` cannot refer to William Colgate, a
person. It must be replaced by the personal pronoun` he.` (B)` Apprentice` is preceded by the
appropriate article an and followed by the appropriate preposition` to.` (C) `was to become`
denotes a future event from a point of view in the past. (D) The adjective `toilet` is not preceded
by the indefinite article a so the qualified noun must be in the plural.
26.` (A)` (A) is the right answer because` kinds` must be replaced by` kind` as the trees that
shed their leaves form one class or type. (B) The simple present tense is used to denote a
scientific fact. (C) The plural possessive pronoun` their` refers to the plural noun `trees.` (D)
The simple present tense, in passive voice, is in agreement with` shed.`
27.` (A)` (A) is the right answer. Food production by photosynthesis is common to the whole
genre of plants. While talking of a whole genre, the definite article` the` is not required. (B) The
simple present tense is used to denote a scientific fact. (C) The prepositional phrase modifies
the verb` make.` (D) The past participle` called` denotes the passive voice which is the
appropriate verb form for the object` photosynthesis.
28.` (C)` (C) is the right answer. There is a redundant use of the adjectives of quantity. The
answer should be `enough attention;` enough denotes unspecified quantity just short of the
desired limit. `Amount of `is a certain quantity which needs to be qualified, such as great
amount of.
29.` (D)` (D) is the right answer.` The same` qualifies` Greenwich meridian` but does not
relate it to` prime meridian.` The two terms refer to the same thing. Only` the same as `denotes
that both are the same thing. (A) is the simple present tense, used to denote scientific fact. (B)`
Through` denotes path of movement. (C) In is the appropriate preposition for locating objects in
a large segment of space (town, country, etc.).
30.` (D)` (D) is the right answer.` But for` makes an exception to what is stated earlier: `no
charges for using the library. However` is a conjunction that must introduce a clause contrasting
with the main clause. There is just one clause in this sentence. The answer should be` but for.`
(A) The indefinite pronoun` there` is usually used to begin a sentence when the real subject is
to follow. (B)` Usually` is an adverb modifying the verb is. (C) The preposition` for` denotes the
purpose of` charge.`
31.` (D)` (D) is the right answer. So` does` denotes affirmative agreement. When the main
verb is in the negative` does not,` the agreement of Harry with Tom's opinion must also be
expressed in the negative; this is called negative agreement. The answer should be `neither does
Harry.` (A) The singular verb is in agreement with the singular noun` Tom. `(B) The expression
of an opinion is normally expressed in the simple present tense. (C) The adjective` useful`
complements the verb` is.`
32.` (A)` (A) is the right answer.` Always` and` never` are contradictory terms and so cannot
be used together. The answer is` never.` (B) The simple present tense has been used to denote a
scientific fact. (C) The possessive plural refers to` cuckoo.` (D)` Them` is an object pronoun; it
is the object of the verb` leaves,` referring to` eggs.
33.` (B)` (B) is the right answer. The present tense` does not` does not agree with the
participle` recalling` which implies that the interview took place in the past. The answer should
be` had not expected;` the past perfect locates the` expectation` in a past time before the`
interview.` The answer could also be` did not expect` which also denotes past time. (A)` With`
denotes the inclusion of the noun` actor` in the interview. (C) is the complement of` expect.`
(D) denotes duration of time.
34.` (C)` (C) is the right answer. The pronoun must refer to` films. He` is a masculine, singular
pronoun not agreeing with films. The answer must be` they,` a plural pronoun. (A) is the object
of the verb` wanted.` (B)` But` denotes a contrast to Chaplin's wish. (D) Denotes agent of`
saved.`
35.` (A)` (A) is the right answer, it contains a redundant use of ` for. To commemorate
`denotes purpose of the` brass plaque.` (B) is the possessive form of the relative pronoun `who.`
(C)` Picture` is the object of` whose.` (D) is the finite verb of the clause` a brass plaque marks....`
36.` (D)` (D) is the right answer. The adverb` easily` must be preceded by a verb which will
parallel the series` stored, reused....` The answer should be` modified.` (A) The present
continuous tense denotes something happening nowadays. (B) is an adjective qualifying` word
processor.` (C) The simple present tense (in the passive voice) is used to express a general fact.
37.` (C)` (C) is the right answer.` Ornamental` and` decorative` mean the same thing, so their
combined use is redundant. Only one of them is required to qualify the noun` tree. `(A) A
definite article is required to specify a particular kind of tree. (B) is the simple present tense
used to denote a general fact. (D) The relative pronoun` that` refers to` tree; was` is the finite
verb of the subordinate clause` that...Japan.`
38.` (D)` (D) is the right answer.` Raise` is a transitive verb requiring an object. The answer
should be` rise.` The causative verb` make` should be followed by an infinitive without to. (A) is
a participle functioning as an adjective to qualify the noun` agents.` (B) `Such as` is used to give
examples of the preceding noun` agents.` (C) The plural verb is in agreement with the noun`
agents.
39.` (A)` (A) is the right answer. `Most` is an indefinite numeral adjective denoting part of a
whole. So we must say` most of the neighborhood.` (B) is a finite verb completing the main
clause` most...agreed.` (C) The noun (the real subject of the subordinate clause) is anticipated by
the impersonal pronoun` there.` (D) shows position of the shopping mall.
40. (B) (B) is the right answer. `Squeeze` is a verb.` Movement `must be qualified by the
participle `squeezing.` (A) Simple present tense denotes a scientific fact. (C) `Of` de- notes
possession; relates `movement` to `muscles`. (D) is an adverbial phrase denoting where the
`movement` takes place.

Reading comprehension and vocabulary.

1. (C) The passage states that stalagmites grow "as a result of water
dripping from an overhead stalactite. Choice (A) is how a stalactite is formed,
the opposite of a stalagmite. Underground rivers (B) do not result in mineral
deposits. Water which trickles down a slope, (D), results in a curtain.
2. (B) The second paragraph begins with the definition of sinkholes -
"natural openings on the surface that lead to caves."
3. (A) Stalagmites grow upward from the floor. Stalactites (B) hang from
the ceiling of a cave. Sinkholes (C) are openings that lead to caves. Curtains
(D) form when drops of water trickle along a slope.
4. (C) In the term "inclined ceiling," the word "inclined" means sloped, or
slanted. Therefore, slanted is the correct answer. (A), (B), and (D) are
incorrect.
5. (C) Slopes are not caused by dripping water. They are part of the natural
shape of the cave, so (C) is the correct choice. Stalagmites (A) and stalactites
(B) are both caused by dripping water; these choices are incorrect. Curtains
(D) are formed out of stalactites and stalagmites, which are created by dripping
water. Therefore, (D) is incorrect.
6. (D) Geology includes the study of rocks, including speleothems. (D) is
the right answer. Geography (A) is the study of all the Earth's features, not
just caves, and is incorrect. Archaeology (B) is the study of ancient
civilizations and their remains; (B) is also incorrect. Physics (C) is the science
of energy and matter; (C) is an incorrect answer.
7. (B) In this passage, another term for "curtain" is "drapery." Choice (B)
"draperies," the plural form of "drapery," is the correct answer. (A) "columns,"
(C) "stalagmites," and (D) "rims" are incorrect.
8. (C) The passage states that the word speleothem comes from the Greek
language. Therefore, (A) Latin, (B) French, and (D) English are all incorrect.
9. (A) The passage says specifically that stalactites "are formed as drop after
drop of water slowly trickles through cracks in the cave roof." This is restated
in choice (A), the correct answer. There is no mention of underground rivers in
the passage, so (B) is an incorrect choice. Water which seeps through the floor
of the cave (C) is the opposite of the correct answer and should not be chosen.
Curtains, not stalactites, are formed by water dripping down a slope.
Therefore, (D) is incorrect.
10. (B) Stalactites grow from the ceiling, and is the correct answer.
Stalagmites (A) grow from the cave floor. (A) is incorrect. Columns (C) are
the union of stalactites and stalagmites; they do not grow from ceilings. (C) is
incorrect. Rimstones (D) are not mentioned in the passage. (D) is incorrect.
11. (C) The passage lists three examples of Eastern stallions: Byerly Turk,
Darley Arabian, and Godolphin Barb. According to the passage, the
Thoroughbred is a distinct breed that traces its ancestry to Eastern stallions,
but is not technically an Eastern stallion itself.
12. (B) According to the passage, the Great Horse of the Middle Ages was
bred for all of the listed characteristics except swiftness. It was the horse bred
by the Arabs, in fact, that showed swiftness.
13. (C) The passage states that "cross-breeding of hot- blooded and cold-
blooded horses for certain characteristics produced breeds ranging from riding
horses to draft horses." Choices (A), (B), and (D) are all factually incorrect
within the passage.
14. (A) The clue here is in the discription of the horses as "small and swift,"
which would most likely mean they were also "graceful." The horses, then,
would certainly not be "clumsy" (B), "massive" (C), or "bulky" (D).
15. (C) A "foal," or baby horse, is not one of the major divisions of horse
breeds.
16. (B) The passage states, "the Thoroughbred is considered by many to be
the highpoint of elegance and fine selective breeding." The other choices are
earlier ancestors of the Thoroughbred.
17. (B) A breeder is someone who raises horses in order to have them
reproduce. Bred mares become pregnant when they conceive. (B) is the
correct answer. Although a horse may become sick when it conceives, (A) is
not the correct answer. To die (C) is not the correct answer. To be born (D) is
the result of conception, not the definition of conception. Therefore, (D) is
also incorrect.
18. (D) A foal is a baby horse. A male horse (A) is a stallion, and a female
horse (B) is a mare. There is no a term for an old horse (C). Therefore, (A),
(B), and (C) are incorrect.
19. (C) According to the passage, the average amount of mares which
actually conceive is less than 50 percent (50%). (A) 40 and (B) 85 are the
percentages of variation in horses' conception, not the average. (D) 75 is not
mentioned in the passage at all.
20. (C) A mare is a female horse. A male horse (A) is a stallion. A baby
horse (B) is a foal. There is no term for an old horse (D). Therefore, (A), (B),
and (D) are incorrect.
21. (C) The second paragraph states that the gestation period for hamsters is
about 16 days.
22. (B) The second paragraph states that female hamsters may eat their own
young when the litter is large. Hunger (A), deformity (C), and quick
maturation (D) are not listed as possible reasons.
23. (A) The passage states that a female hamster can bear young when she is
six weeks to two months old.
24. (D) The word perpetuation in this context means that the animals need a
large litter to continue their species. Extinction (A) and annihilation (B) both
are opposites of perpetuation. Variation (C) would mean that they wanted
diversity in the litter.
25. (C) The second paragraph states that the female hamster may produce
litters up to an age of 15 months.
26. (B) The tone of the passage could best be described as informative
because of the extensive information about large litters and especially
hamsters.
27. (B) Since the passage's main idea is about why animals have large litters,
"Reasons for Large Litters" is the best choice. Although the passage says that
some of the offspring of the litter can be endangered, it is not the main theme,
so the title in choice (A), "Endangered Animal Litters," is not the best choice.
While the passage does discuss the parents of large litters, they are not the
main topic. Therefore (C), "Parents of Large Litters," is an incorrect answer.
Since the passage states that litters are not educated, choice (D), "Educating
Litters," is a wrong answer.
28. (C) A litter is the amount of offspring, or babies, an animal has. The
amount of parents an animal has (A) does not vary. Therefore, (A) is incorrect.
Although "litter" can also mean "garbage," (B) it is the wrong meaning for this
passage. A litter is the number of children an animal has, not how many
brothers and sisters (siblings) it has, therefore, (D) is an incorrect choice.
29. (A) The passage states that the parents of the litter spend most of their
time reproducing and food gathering. (A), which restates the passage, is the
correct answer. The passage specifically states that the litter is uneducated, so
(B) is incorrect. The parents of the litter are too busy to interfere with the
litter. Therefore, (C) is incorrect. The passage does not mention playing, so
(D) is an incorrect choice.
30. (B) (A), (C), and (D) are all reasons to have large litters as stated in the
passage. Only (B) is incorrect, for the passage says litters are uneducated.
Since the question asked for the incorrect answer, (B) is the right choice.
31. (B) The third paragraph clearly states that de Leon landed on Florida's
east coast in March, 1513. The other choices, then, are obviously incorrect.
32. (C) According to the passage, Ponce de Leon started a colony in Caparra
in 1509 and later abandoned it in favor of San Juan (A). La Florida (B) is the
name de Leon gave to the peninsular extension of North America, and St.
Augustine (D) is the name later given to the area in Florida where he landed in
1513.
33. (B) The second paragraph clearly states that the legendary island was
named "Bimini." The other choices are thus incorrect.
34. (C) The passage states, "it is said he was seeking this spring [The
Fountain of Youth] when he discovered Florida." None of the other
statements are supported by the passage.
35. (A) The second paragraph states that "he named the place La Florida
after the Spanish term for Easter Sunday - Pascua florida."
36. (D) Nowhere in the passage is it stated that the Spanish Empire was
advanced through negotiations - only by subjugation and force.
37. (C) If you can imagine what Florida looks like on a map, you know that
three of its sides are surrounded by water, while the top part is attached to the
rest of the North American continent. Such a land formation is called a
"peninsula." Choice (C), which restates this definition, is the correct answer.
Choice (A) is incorrect because the passage mentions nothing about volcanoes
in Florida. Choice (B), an island, is what de Leon thought Florida was; he did
not realize it was part of a huge continent. And choice (D) is incorrect because
the shape of the land mass, incorrectly called an island, has nothing to do with
its inhabitants.
38. (D) This question asks you about the intent (or tone) of a word, instead
of its meaning. Because the word "advanced" is in quotations in the passage
itself, we can assume that the author of the passage had a different meaning in
mind for the word, implying that the way adelantados "advanced" the Spanish
Empire was wrong. Choice (A), which states that adelantados favor progress,
is true, but it does not give a negative meaning to "advanced." (A) is incorrect.
(B), progress could not have occurred without subjugation (repression), may
be the way the adelantados felt, but not how the author feels. (B) is incorrect.
(C) is also incorrect. Although progress may be related to conquest and
subjugation, it is not what the tone of "advanced" suggests. (D) is correct
because the quotations around "advanced" suggest the author's feelings that
what adelantados believe is progress really is not.
39. (B) According to the passage, de Leon believed he had discovered a new
island called Florida. (B), which restates this, is the correct answer. (A), (C),
and (D) are therefore incorrect.
40. (C) Although de Leon was a great explorer and was the first Spaniard to
see the shores of the United States, that is not what adelantado means, so
choices (A) and (B) are incorrect. The passage does not state that de Leon
claimed Florida for the King of Spain, so (D) is incorrect. The passage states
that an adelantado is one who "'advanced' the Spanish Empire by conquest,
subjugation of the Indians, and establishment of a semimilitary government."
(C), conquered and ruled by military force, restates the passage, and therefore
is correct.
41. (C) The passage focuses primarily on Einstein's work in physics and
does not mention chemistry (A), biology (B), or engineering (D).
42. (D) The passage discusses television as being a practical application of
Einstein's theory of light. None of the other inventions are discussed.
43. (B) The passage states that "Einstein spoke out frequently against
nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others." According to the
passage, Einstein supported Zionism (A), U.S. atomic bomb research (C), and
the defeat of the Nazis (D).
44. (C) Einstein was born in Ulm, Germany. He later lived in Switzerland (A)
and the United States (B). Israel (D) was not a nation when he was born.
45. (A) Brownian movement is the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles
in suspension. Choices (B) and (C) relate to Einstein's later work, not to
Brownian movement. Brownian movement did not form the basis of the
theory of relativity (D).
46. (A) Nowhere in the passage is it mentioned that Einstein ever lived in
Belgium, much less became a citizen there. He was, however, a citizen of the
United States (C) and Switzerland (D). He was always obviously a citizen of
Germany (B), having been born there.
47. (B) It is obvious from the passage that the author greatly respects Albert
Einstein's work and considers him "one of the greatest thinkers in history."
Nowhere does the author pass judgment on Einstein's political views (A).
Choices (C) and (D) are directly opposite of the facts in the passage.
48. (C) Einstein's special theory of relativity directly states that time and
motion are relative to the observer, given a constant speed of light and natural
laws. The other choices are also Einstein theories, but are not related to his
special theory of relativity.
49. (A) In this context, nationalism refers to the "elevation" of one nation
over all others. This eliminates (B) and (D) as possibilities. "Support" (C)
would be a good second choice, but does not have as strongly positive a
connotation as "elevation."
50. (C) The passage states that Einstein's second paper "proposed that light
is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta." None of the other
terms is discussed in the passage.
51. (B) In this context, obliterated would mean destroyed. Created (A) is the
opposite of obliterated. Changed (C) and eroded (D) are not meanings for
obliterated.
52. (A) The second paragraph states that scientists estimate the Earth's age
by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements in rocks. The other
methods are not mentioned in the passage.
53. (C) Scientists estimate that the Earth is 4.6 billion years old by testing
rocks found on the moon and meteorites. (A) 3 1/3 billion years (A) old is the
age of the oldest rock found on Earth.
54. (D) The passage indicates that the craters were obliterated by crustal
motions and erosion. None of the other answers were mentioned in the
passage.
55. (B) Erosion and crustal motions are mentioned in the passage as the
cause for the obliteration of the craters that formed from celestial
bombardment of the Earth. Human alteration (A) and deforestation (D) are
both man-made procesess of recent occurence.
56. (A) "Determining the Age of the Earth" would be the primary focus of
the passage. "Determining the Age of the Solar System" (B) is mentioned but
is not the focus of the passage. "Erosion and Crustal Motion of Earth" (C) is a
process that hampered scientific determining of the Earth's age. "Radioactive
Elements in Rocks" (D) help determine the age of the Earth.
57. (C) Choices (A), (B), and (D) were all studied to determine if Earth was
bombarded in its early history. The satellites of Jupiter were studied according
to the passage. Jupiter, choice (C), was not studied, however. Therefore, (C) is
the correct answer.
58. (A) The passage says that there is evidence that the other planetary
bodies were bombarded; from that evidence, one can infer that Earth was
bombarded as well. There is no mention in the passage that bombardment of
Earth is documented fact, so choice (B) is incorrect. The lunar record is
discussed in the passage as indicating the decrease of bombardment, not
whether it actually happened, so choice (C) is incorrect. The passage states
that erosion has gotten rid of any evidence that Earth was bombarded, so (D)
is incorrect.
59. (D) The passage states that the number of bombardments "decreased to
its current low about 4 billion years ago." Choices (A), (B), and (C) are
incorrect because they state that information incorrectly.
60. (B) "Assault" is the best answer because it is closest to the meaning of
"bombardment," which is an attack or battering. An "avoidance" (A) is the
opposite of a bombardment, so (A) is a wrong answer. Choices (C) and (D),
effect and cause, have nothing to do with the meaning of bombardment.

Back to the test 4