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Reading
comprehension and vocabulary. Test 3.
Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.
Awarded the Nobel prize for physics in 1918, German physicist Max
Planck is best
remembered as the originator of the quantum theory. His work
helped usher in a new era in
theoretical physics and revolutionized the scientific community's
understanding of atomic
and subatomic processes.
Planck introduced an idea that led to the quantum theory, which
became the
foundation of twentieth century physics. In December 1900, Planck
worked out an equation
that described the distribution of radiation accurately over the
range of low to high
frequencies. He had developed a theory which depended on a model
of matter that seemed
very strange at the time. The model required the emission of
electromagnetic radiation in
small chunks or particles. These particles were later called
quantums. The energy associated
with each quantum is measured by multiplying the frequency of the
radiation, v, by a
universal constant, h. Thus, energy, or E, equals hv. The
constant, h, is known as Planck's
constant. It is now recognized as one of the fundamental
constants of the world.
Planck announced his findings in 1900, but is was years before
the full consequences
of his revolutionary quantum theory were recognized. Throughout
his life, Planck made
significant contributions to optics, thermodynamics and
statistical mechanics, physical
chemistry, and other fields. In 1930 he was elected president of
the Kaiser Wilhelm Society,
which was renamed the Max Planck Society after World War II.
Though deeply opposed to
the fascist regime of Adolf Hitler, Planck remained in Germany
throughout the war. He died
in Gottingen on October 4, 1947
1. In which of the following fields did Max Planck NOT make a
significant contribution?
(A) Optics
(B) Thermodynamics
(C) Statistical mechanics
(D) Biology
2. The word "revolutionary," as used in line 15, means
(A) dangerous.
(B) extremist.
(C) momentous.
(D) militarist.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that Planck's work led to
the development of which of the following?
(A) The rocket
(B) The atomic bomb
(C) The internal combustion engine
(D) The computer
4. The particles of electromagnetic radiation given off by matter
are known as
(A) quantums.
(B) atoms.
(C) electrons.
(D) valences.
5. The word "universal," as used in line 12 most nearly
means
(A) planetary.
(B) cosmic.
(C) worldwide.
(D) always present.
6. The implication in this passage is that
(A) only a German physicist could discover such a theory.
(B) quantum theory, which led to the development of twentiethth
century physics, is basically a mathematical formula.
(C) Planck's constant was not discernible before 1900.
(D) radiation was hard to study.
7. "An idea" as used in line 5, refers to
(A) a model of matter.
(B) emission of electromagnetic radiation.
(C) quantums.
(D) the equation that described the distribution of radiation
accurately over the range of low to high frequencies.
8. The word "emission" as used in line 9 means
(A) giving off.
(B) holding on to.
(C) throwing away.
(D) taking back.
9. Planck's constant, expressed in a mathematical formula, is
(A) e = v/h
(B) E = h/v
(C) e=h-v
(D) E = hv
10. What is known as Planck's constant?
(A) v
(B) h
(C) e
(D) E
Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage
There has been much speculation about the origin of baseball.
In 1907 a special
commission decided that the modern game was invented by Abner
Doubleday, a West Point
cadet, at Cooperstown, N.Y., in 1839. One hundred years later the
National Baseball Museum
was opened at Cooperstown to honor Doubleday. Historians, however,
disagree about the
origin of baseball. Some say that baseball comes from bat-and-ball
games of ancient times.
It is a matter of record that in the 1700s English boys played a
game they called base
ball. Americans have played a kind of baseball since about 1800.
At first the American game
had different rules and different names in various parts of the
country—town ball, rounders,
or one old cat. Youngsters today still play some of these
simplified forms of the game.
Baseball did not receive a standard set of rules until 1845, when
Alexander Cartwright
organized the Knickerbocker Baseball Club of New York City. The
rules Cartwright set up
for his nine-player team were widely adopted by other clubs and
formed the basis of modern
baseball. The game was played on a "diamond" infield
with the bases 90 feet apart. The first
team to score 21 runs was declared the winner. By 1858 the
National Association of Base Ball
Players was formed with 25 amateur teams. The Cincinnati Red
Stockings began to pay
players in 1869.
11. Which of the following is true about the origins of
baseball?
(A) Historians agree that baseball was invented by Abner
Doubleday.
(B) Baseball, as played in the early nineteenth century, differed
very little from today's game.
(C) As early as the 1700s, English boys played a came called
"base ball."
(D) The first standard set of baseball rules was established at
the turn of the century.
12. What was the first professional baseball team?
(A) New York Knickerbockers
(B) Milwaukee Braves
(C) Cincinnati Red Stockings
(D) Brooklyn Dodgers
13. Who first gave baseball a standard set of rules?
(A) Abner Doubleday
(B) Alexander Cartwright
(C) Albert Spalding
(D) Babe Ruth
14. Which of the following was not a predecessor of baseball?
(A) Rounders
(B) Town ball
(C) Cricket
(D) One old cat
15. In what year was the National Baseball Museum opened?
(A) 1939
(B) 1907
(C) 1839
(D) 1845
16. The word "adopted" in line 12 means
(A) established.
(B) accepted.
(C) rejected.
(D) abolished.
17. The word "standard" in line 10 means
(A) normal.
(B) disputed.
(C) conclusive.
(D) official.
18. According to the passage, where is the National Baseball
Museum located?
(A) Cooperstown
(B) New York City
(C) Cincinnati
(D) West Point
19. The tone of the passage is
(A) persuasive.
(B) informative.
(C) biased.
(D) argumentative.
20. The passage implies that until 1869, baseball was played for
all of the following reasons EXCEPT
(A) exercise.
(B) leisure.
(C) profit.
(D) socializing.
Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.
The blue of the sea is caused by the scattering of sunlight by
tiny particles suspended
in the water. Blue light, being of short wavelength, is scattered
more efficiently than light of
longer wavelengths.
Although waters of the open ocean are commonly some shade of blue,
especially in
tropical or subtropical regions, green water is commonly seen
near coasts. This is caused by
yellow pigments being mixed with blue water. Phytoplankton are
one source of the yellow
pigment. Other microscopic plants may color the water brown or
brownish-red. Near the
shore silt or sediment in suspension can give waters a brownish
hue; outflow of large rivers
can often be observed many miles offshore by the coloration of
suspended soil particles.
Marine phytoplankton (Greek for "plant wanderers") are
microscopic single-celled
plants that include diatoms, dinoflagellates, coccolithophorids,
green algae, and blue-green
algae, among others. The growth of these organisms, which
photosynthesize light, depends
on a delicate balance between nutrient enrichment by vertical
mixing, often limited by the
availability of nitrogen and light. Diatoms are one-celled plants
with patterned glass
coverings. Each glass, or silicon dioxide box, is ornamented with
species-specific designs,
pits, and perforations making them popular with microscopists and,
more recently, scanning
electron microscopists.
Some of the thousands of kinds of phytoplankton swim feebly by
lashing a whiplike
thread appendage called a flagellum. The dinoflagellates are
known for their biolumines-
cence, or phosphorescence, a "cold light" similar to
that of fireflies.
21. The growth of phytoplankton is often limited by the
availability of
(A) oxygen.
(B) hydrogen.
(C) nitrogen.
(D) carbon dioxide.
22. Which of the following is not a type of phytoplankton?
(A) Green algae
(B) Diatoms
(C) Blue-green algae
(D) Amoeba
23. Many phytoplankton use an appendage called a flagellum for
(A) reproduction.
(B) propulsion.
(C) digestion.
(D) respiration.
24. What color pigment is phytoplankton a source of?
(A) Red
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue
25. What can give waters a brownish hue near the shore?
(A) Sediment
(B) Phytoplankton
(C) Blue pigment
(D) Diatoms
26. All ocean water is the same shade of blue
(A) in all places.
(B) at all times.
(C) hardly ever.
(D) because all light waves are the same length.
27. Blue light is
(A) a short wavelength.
(B) a long wavelength.
(C) about equal to all other wavelengths.
(D) not scatterable.
28. Green water near coastlines is almost always caused by
(A) sand color.
(B) red pigments in coastal waters.
(C) blue pigment.
(D) reflected light and yellow pigment from plant life.
29. Phytoplankton are
(A) short light rays.
(B) suspended soil particles.
(C) microscopic floating plants.
(D) long light rays.
30. The main idea of this passage is
(A) light causes sea color.
(B) sea coloration is varied because of a combination of length
of light waves and microscopic plant life and silt.
(C) microscopic plant life causes sea color.
(D) water composition causes sea color.
Questions 31-40 refer to the following passage.
Biomass is organic material such as trees, crops, manure,
seaweed, and algae. Biomass
captures and stores energy though a process called photosynthesis.
Carbon dioxide from the air enters the leaf through the stomata.
Water travels to the
leaf cells from the soil through the xylem in the roots and stems.
The captured light energy
is then used to break down the water into oxygen molecules and
hydrogen atoms and to join
these hydrogen atoms to the carbon dioxide molecules to make
sugar molecules. Six
molecules of oxygen are produced as a waste product and are
released into the air through
the stomata.
This energy can be released from any form of biomass through
conversion processes
to produce a variety of useful energy forms—gas, steam,
hydrogen, charcoal, methane, and
synthetic oils with by-products for food, fertilizers, and
chemicals as a bonus. These energy
forms in turn can be used to produce electricity, heat, and
transportation fuels, reducing the
use of conventional nonrenewable energy sources.
31. Which of the following is NOT an energy form produced by
the conversion of biomass?
(A) Methane
(B) Steam
(C) Oxygen
(D) Synthetic oils
32. What is the name of the specialized structures in green
plants that carries out photosynthesis?
(A) Enzymes
(B) Chlorophyll
(C) Stomata
(D) Chloroplasts
33. Which of the following is NOT an essential "ingredient"
for photosynthesis to occur?
(A) Sunlight
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Oxygen
(D) Water
34. In line 11, "synthetic" most nearly means
(A) artificial.
(B) natural.
(C) useful.
(D) organic.
35. How many molecules of oxygen are produced by photosynthesis"
(A) Four
(B) Eight
(C) Six
(D) Two
36. The main idea of this passage is that biomass
(A) is inorganic material.
(B) uses energy
(C) is the beginning of many natural energy forms that conserve
use of conventional energy sources.
(D) uses photosynthesis to transport fuels
37. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as
organic material?
(A) Metal
(B) Crops
(C) Manure
(D) Algae
38. In this passage "photosynthesis" is the
(A) process needed to create algae.
(B) reason nonrenewable energy sources can be saved.
(C) method of producing electricity
(D) process biomass uses to capture and store energy.
39. The conversion process is considered whot part of the biomass
continuum?
(A) Beginning point
(B) Release valve
(C) End point
(D) Shut-off valve
40. "Bonus" in this passage refers to
(A) byproducts.
(B) biomass.
(C) photosynthesis.
(D) conversion.
Questions 41 to 50 refer to the following passage:
The United States government publishes guidelines for appropriate
nutrient intakes
These are known as the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and
are updated
regularly based on new research in the science of nutrition. RDAs
are suggested amounts of
calories, protein, and some minerals and vitamins for an adequate
diet. For other dietary
substances, specific goals must await further research. However,
for the U.S. population as
a whole, increasing starch and fiber in our diets and reducing
calories (primarily from fats,
sugar, and alcohol) is sensible. These suggestions are especially
appropriate for people who
have other factors for chronic diseases such as family history of
obesity, premature heart
disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, and high blood
cholesterol, or for those who use
tobacco.
Snacks can furnish about one-fourth of the calorie requirements
among teenagers
Those snacks should also furnish much of the day's allowances for
protein, minerals, and
vitamins. Sandwiches, fruit, and milk make good snacks for active
teenagers.
Food from the food pyramid may be part of any meal. A grilled
cheese sandwich or
a bowl of whole-grain cereal is just as nutritious in the morning
as it is at noon. In addition,
a good breakfast consists of any foods that supply about one-fourth
of the necessary nutrients
for the day
41. The passage directly states that most of the U.S.
population should increase their intake of
(A) protein.
(B) fats.
(C) starch and fiber.
(D) sandwiches.
42. A good breakfast should supply about what percentage of the
necessary nutrients for the day?
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) Less than one-fourth
43. The passage implies which of the following?
(A) The time of day when food is consumed affects its nutritive
value.
(B) Different foods can be combined to increase total nutrition
value.
(C) It can be detrimental to your health to eat breakfast foods
later in the day.
(D) When food is eaten has no bearing on its nutritive effects.
44. In line 4, "adequate" most nearly means
(A) superior.
(B) sufficient.
(C) long-lasting.
(D) adult.
45. Why are RDAs regularly updated?
(A) New discoveries in the science of nutrition are constantly
being made.
(B) American's diets are constantly changing.
(C) As people age, their nutritional needs change.
(D) Very little is currently known about nutrition.
46. In this passage RDAs refers to
(A) types of vitamins.
(B) types of protein.
(C) types of minerals.
(D) amounts of energy, protein, vitamins, and minerals
47. One implication in this passage is that
(A) all RDAs have been established.
(B) not all RDAs have been established yet.
(C) it's not important to know RDAs.
(D) RDAs are necessary only for sick people
48. Most of the U.S. population would do well to include in their
diets more
(A) alcohol.
(B) sugars.
(C) fats.
(D) starch and fiber.
49. "Chronic" as used in line 8 means
(A) continuing.
(B) intermittent.
(C) acute.
(D) curable.
50. The reduction of calories in the diet is particularlary good
for people who suffer from
(A) obesity.
(B) premature heart disease and diabetes.
(C) high blood pressure and cholesterol levels
(D) All of the above
Questions 51-60 refer to the following passage.
Once flourishing in grassy marshlands and bogs, the whooping
crime almost disap-
peared as people's croplands and cities altered its natural
habitat.
In the late 1940s, only one flock of fewer than 20 whooping
cranes was left in the
world. No one knew where the whooper went to lay its eggs but
after a long search, scientists
found the whooping crane's nesting grounds incanada's remote Wood
Buffalo Park in 1954.
It was a crucial discovery, enabling biologists to begin a
comprehensive program to save the
great white birds.
Strenuous efforts are made by Canada and the United States to
protect this magnificent
bird. The education of the hunter along with its flyway is
important. The cranes are impressive
in flight—great white birds with a seven-foot (2-meter) spread
between their black wing tips.
There are other large white birds with black wing tips, however—the
white pelican, wood
ibis, and snow goose. And the young birds, mottled with rusty
brown, could be mistaken for
the more common sandhill cranes. The federal authorities,
therefore, are urging hunters to
adopt the slogan. "Don't Shoot Any Large White Bird."
51. The whooping crane almost disappeared because of
(A) disease.
(B) alteration of its habitat.
(C) overeating.
(D) change in climate.
52. The whooping crane is similar in appearance to
(A) the while pelican.
(B) the wood ibis.
(C) the snow goose.
(D) All of the above.
53. The whooping crane nests in
(A) Yosemite National Park.
(B) the Gulf coast of Florida.
(C) Wood Buffalo Park.
(D) Mexico.
54. The young whooping crane could be mistaken for
(A) a sandhill crane.
(B) a bald eagle.
(C) a seagull.
(D) a vulture.
55. It can be inferred from the author's tone that he/she feels
which of the following.?
(A) Whooping cranes should be allowed to become extinct.
(B) Whooping cranes are overabundant.
(C) Whooping cranes should be protected.
(D) Whooping cranes should be hunted.
56. The implication here was that at one time the whooping crane
was almost
(A) extinct.
(B) nesting.
(C) overabundant.
(D) wiped out by disease.
57. The main idea in this passage is that whooping cranes
(A) are extinct.
(B) nest in Canada.
(C) would not have been saved if their nesting grounds had not
been found.
(D) are egg laying.
58. The word "altered" in this passage refers to
(A) left unchanged.
(B) changed by encroaching civilizations.
(C) fixed.
(D) moved.
59. The word "crucial" in line 6 means
(A) of little consequence.
(B) mildly important.
(C) least important.
(D) most important.
60. "Remote" in line 5 means
(A) on the edge of the wilderness.
(B) close to civilization.
(C) easily accessible.
(D) far away from civilization.
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